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A 6 year old boy presents with 2 days of nontender palpable purpura of bilateral lower extremities, accompanied by arthralgia of the left ankle. Vital signs are temperature 37.6, HR 90, RR 20, BP 105/60. He has no nuchal rigidity. He has no significant past medical history. His CBC shows normal platelet count and PT/PTT are normal. 

Which of the following is not a common complication for his likely diagnosis?
10 votes